BCPS medication safety, quality and practice management, from error to formulary

Study cases written by our editors, not BPS items. The real BCPS exam is computer-based multiple choice, answered in order with no going back.

1. Case 01

   A hospital pharmacy Six Sigma team is working to reduce delays in first-dose IV antibiotic delivery. It has completed the Define and Measure phases, including a project charter and baseline turnaround data. Which activity should the team perform next?

   1. AOption A: Build a control chart to monitor the sustained process
   2. BOption B: Pilot a new STAT-order workflow on one medical unit
   3. COption C: Identify root causes of delay with a fishbone diagram
   4. DOption D: Revise the project charter to narrow the project scope

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: C.

   DMAIC proceeds Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control, so after baseline measurement the team must analyze the data to identify root causes of the delay. Piloting a new workflow belongs to the Improve phase, and starting it before the causes are known risks fixing the wrong step. Control charts sustain gains in the final phase, and the charter is a Define-phase product.

   A

   Control charts sustain gains in the final Control phase, long after the causes are found and fixed.

   B

   Piloting a new workflow belongs to the Improve phase, and starting before the causes are known risks fixing the wrong step.

   C

   Correct: DMAIC runs Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control, so with baseline data in hand the team now analyzes root causes.

   D

   The charter is a Define-phase product that is already complete; reopening it stalls the project.

2. Case 02

   A hospital MUE of IV acetaminophen finds that 40% of patients receiving it were taking other oral medications and could have received oral acetaminophen. The P&T committee accepts the findings. What is the most appropriate next step in the MUE process?

   1. AOption A: Remove IV acetaminophen from the formulary today
   2. BOption B: Repeat the baseline audit to confirm the results
   3. COption C: Implement an intervention, then remeasure use
   4. DOption D: Report the findings to P&T and close the MUE

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: C.

   An MUE is a performance-improvement cycle: after criteria-based assessment, the team implements targeted interventions (such as restriction criteria or automatic IV-to-oral conversion) and then remeasures to confirm improvement. Closing the MUE after reporting stops before any change in practice. Removing the drug outright ignores legitimate uses in patients who cannot take oral drugs, and repeating the same baseline audit delays improvement without adding information.

   A

   Removing the drug outright ignores patients who truly cannot take anything by mouth.

   B

   Repeating the same baseline audit delays improvement without adding information.

   C

   Correct: an MUE is a performance-improvement cycle, so accepted findings lead to targeted interventions such as IV-to-oral conversion, then remeasurement.

   D

   Closing the MUE after reporting stops before any change in prescribing practice.

3. Case 03

   During discharge reconciliation for a 74-year-old patient admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and acute kidney injury (now resolving), the pharmacist compares home, inpatient, and discharge medication lists. Which finding is an unintentional discrepancy that requires prescriber clarification?

   1. AOption A: Inpatient correctional insulin is replaced by home metformin
   2. BOption B: Home lisinopril held for AKI is missing with no restart plan
   3. COption C: Inpatient enoxaparin prophylaxis is not continued at discharge
   4. DOption D: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is added to complete a 5-day course

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: B.

   Lisinopril was held for a temporary reason, and dropping it at discharge without a documented plan to restart is a classic unintentional omission that leads to post-discharge harm. Stopping inpatient VTE prophylaxis, returning to the home diabetes regimen, and finishing the antibiotic course are intentional, clinically appropriate changes. Reconciliation targets discrepancies that lack a documented reason, not every difference between lists.

   A

   Returning from inpatient correctional insulin to the home metformin regimen is an expected, intentional change.

   B

   Correct: lisinopril was held for a temporary reason, and dropping it at discharge with no restart plan is a classic unintentional omission.

   C

   Inpatient VTE prophylaxis is normally stopped at discharge, so its absence is intentional.

   D

   Adding the oral antibiotic to finish a 5-day course is a deliberate, appropriate discharge order.

4. Case 04

   A hospital pharmacy needs to order hydromorphone injection, a Schedule II controlled substance, from its wholesaler. Which document is required for this purchase?

   1. AOption A: DEA Form 41
   2. BOption B: DEA Form 224a renewal
   3. COption C: DEA Form 106
   4. DOption D: DEA Form 222 or CSOS

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: D.

   Schedule II controlled substances must be ordered on DEA Form 222 or through its electronic equivalent, the Controlled Substance Ordering System (CSOS). DEA Form 106 reports theft or significant loss, and DEA Form 41 documents destruction of controlled substances. Form 224 and its renewal (224a) cover pharmacy registration, not individual purchases.

   A

   DEA Form 41 documents destruction of controlled substances, not purchases.

   B

   Form 224a renews the pharmacy’s DEA registration; it does not authorize individual orders.

   C

   DEA Form 106 reports theft or significant loss of controlled substances.

   D

   Correct: Schedule II drugs are ordered on DEA Form 222 or through its electronic equivalent, CSOS.

5. Case 05

   A 58-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation (CHA2DS2-VASc 3) has done well on apixaban 5 mg twice daily but recently lost her job and her health insurance. Her household income is 180% of the federal poverty level. She wants to stay on apixaban. Working with the social worker, which step is most appropriate?

   1. AOption A: Apply to the manufacturer’s assistance program
   2. BOption B: Split 5 mg tablets and take 2.5 mg twice daily
   3. COption C: Use the manufacturer’s copay card at her next refill
   4. DOption D: Take apixaban 5 mg once daily to halve the cost

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: A.

   Manufacturer patient assistance programs supply drug free to uninsured patients below income limits (often up to 300–400% of FPL), so she can keep the anticoagulant that works for her. Copay cards only reduce cost-sharing for patients with commercial insurance and do nothing for an uninsured patient. Taking 2.5 mg twice daily or 5 mg once daily gives subtherapeutic exposure; she meets none of the dose-reduction criteria and would lose stroke protection.

   A

   Correct: manufacturer assistance programs provide free drug to uninsured patients within income limits, so she can stay on the anticoagulant that works.

   B

   She meets none of apixaban’s dose-reduction criteria, so 2.5 mg twice daily would leave her underprotected against stroke.

   C

   Copay cards only lower cost-sharing on commercial insurance and do nothing for an uninsured patient.

   D

   Once-daily dosing halves exposure and leaves long troughs in stroke protection.

6. Case 06

   A hospital suspects that voluntary incident reports capture only a small fraction of its adverse drug events. Which surveillance method would detect the largest share of ADEs?

   1. AOption A: Voluntary incident reports with an anonymous submission option
   2. BOption B: Monthly review of the pharmacy’s clinical intervention log
   3. COption C: Screening for triggers such as naloxone or vitamin K orders
   4. DOption D: Review of patient complaints and grievances about medications

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: C.

   Trigger-tool surveillance (for example, the IHI Global Trigger Tool) flags signals such as naloxone, vitamin K, flumazenil, or dextrose 50% orders and abnormal drug levels, then reviews those charts, and it finds many times more ADEs than voluntary reporting. Anonymous voluntary reporting improves reporting culture but still captures only a small fraction of events. Complaints and intervention logs mostly record events that were noticed or prevented, not the ADEs that actually reached patients.

   A

   An anonymous option improves reporting culture, but voluntary reports still capture only a small fraction of ADEs.

   B

   An intervention log records problems pharmacists caught, mostly before harm, not the ADEs that reached patients.

   C

   Correct: trigger tools flag rescue orders such as naloxone or vitamin K and prompt chart review, finding many times more ADEs than voluntary reporting.

   D

   Complaints capture only the events patients noticed and chose to report.

7. Case 07

   A P&T committee compares two oral anticoagulation strategies over a lifetime horizon. Strategy A costs $52,000 and yields 2.4 QALYs; strategy B costs $40,000 and yields 2.0 QALYs. What is the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER) of A versus B, in dollars per QALY gained?

   1. AOption A: $20,000
   2. BOption B: $21,666.67
   3. COption C: $30,000
   4. DOption D: $5,000

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: C.

   ICER = (cost A − cost B) ÷ (QALY A − QALY B) = $12,000 ÷ 0.4 = $30,000 per QALY gained, the figure judged against a willingness-to-pay threshold. $21,666.67 and $20,000 are each strategy’s average cost per QALY ($52,000 ÷ 2.4 and $40,000 ÷ 2.0), which ignore the incremental comparison. $5,000 divides the incremental cost by A’s total QALYs instead of the QALY difference.

   A

   $20,000 is strategy B’s average cost per QALY ($40,000 ÷ 2.0), not an incremental comparison.

   B

   $21,666.67 is strategy A’s average cost per QALY ($52,000 ÷ 2.4), which ignores the comparator.

   C

   Correct: ICER = ($52,000 − $40,000) ÷ (2.4 − 2.0) = $12,000 ÷ 0.4 = $30,000 per QALY gained.

   D

   $5,000 divides the incremental cost by A’s total QALYs instead of the QALY difference.

8. Case 08

   A community pharmacist discovers that a patient has been taking levothyroxine 125 mcg daily for 10 days instead of the prescribed 25 mcg because of a dispensing error. The patient reports no symptoms. Which response is most appropriate?

   1. AOption A: Correct the next fill quietly without telling the patient
   2. BOption B: Inform only the prescriber because no harm has occurred yet
   3. COption C: Disclose the error, apologize, and explain the corrective plan
   4. DOption D: Wait for the next TSH result before deciding whether to disclose

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: C.

   Ethical practice and professional standards require prompt, honest disclosure of an error that reached the patient, with an apology and a plan (correct supply, symptom monitoring, and prescriber notification for follow-up thyroid tests). Notifying only the prescriber is the tempting shortcut, but the patient has a right to know about an error affecting their care, even without apparent harm. Silent correction or waiting for lab results is concealment and erodes trust.

   A

   Silent correction is concealment; it denies the patient information about an error in their own care.

   B

   Notifying the prescriber is part of the plan, but the patient also has a right to know, harm or not.

   C

   Correct: an error that reached the patient calls for prompt, honest disclosure, an apology, and a plan with the right supply and prescriber follow-up.

   D

   Delaying disclosure until a lab result arrives is still concealment and erodes trust.

9. Case 09

   A health system launches a pharmacist-led transitions-of-care program for patients discharged with heart failure. Which evaluation measure best shows that the program itself reduced readmissions?

   1. AOption A: Number of drug-therapy problems resolved per patient
   2. BOption B: Readmission change vs a matched comparison group
   3. COption C: Patient satisfaction with discharge medication counseling
   4. DOption D: 30-day readmission rate of enrolled patients alone

   Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

   Best answer: B.

   Comparing 30-day readmissions with a matched or concurrent comparison group separates the program’s effect from secular trends and case-mix differences. A readmission rate for enrolled patients alone is the tempting choice, but without a comparator it cannot attribute any change to the program. Drug-therapy problems resolved is a process measure, and satisfaction is an experience measure; neither shows an effect on readmissions.

   A

   Drug-therapy problems resolved is a process measure; it does not show an effect on readmissions.

   B

   Correct: comparing readmissions against a matched group separates the program’s effect from secular trends and case-mix differences.

   C

   Satisfaction with counseling is an experience measure and says nothing about readmissions.

   D

   Without a comparator, a change in enrolled patients’ readmissions cannot be credited to the program.

10. Case 10

    A hospital’s wholesaler announces an indefinite national shortage of IV bumetanide, with allocation limited to 50% of historical purchases. What should the pharmacy do first?

    1. AOption A: Restrict IV bumetanide to the ICU before assessing supply
    2. BOption B: Substitute IV furosemide at once without notifying staff
    3. COption C: Buy extra supply from an unverified secondary vendor
    4. DOption D: Quantify supply on hand, usage rate, and days of stock

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: D.

    ASHP shortage guidelines start with an operational assessment of on-hand inventory, usage rate, and expected resupply, which determines how severe the shortage is and drives the response. Gray-market vendors raise counterfeit and DSCSA trading-partner concerns. Substitution and restriction may follow, but they need data, P&T-approved criteria, and communication to prescribers and nurses; unannounced substitution of a loop diuretic at a different potency invites dosing errors.

    A

    Restriction may follow, but setting it before knowing the supply and burn rate is guesswork.

    B

    Silent substitution of a loop diuretic with a different potency invites dosing errors by prescribers and nurses.

    C

    Unverified secondary vendors raise counterfeit and DSCSA trading-partner concerns.

    D

    Correct: ASHP shortage guidance starts with an operational assessment of stock on hand, usage rate and days of supply, which drives every later decision.

11. Case 11

    A pharmacist verifies the following admission orders. Which order should be clarified because it contains an abbreviation on The Joint Commission ‘Do Not Use’ list?

    1. AOption A: Furosemide 40 mg intravenously twice daily
    2. BOption B: Insulin glargine 10 U subcutaneously at bedtime
    3. COption C: Heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours
    4. DOption D: Levothyroxine 0.05 mg orally once daily before breakfast

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: B.

    ‘U’ for units is on the Joint Commission ‘Do Not Use’ list because it can be misread as a 0 or 4, causing 10-fold insulin overdoses, so the order must say ‘units’. Levothyroxine 0.05 mg is tempting, but a leading zero before a decimal is the required safe practice; only a missing leading zero or a trailing zero is prohibited. The heparin and furosemide orders contain no prohibited abbreviations.

    A

    Spelling out ‘intravenously’ and ‘twice daily’ uses no abbreviation from the Do Not Use list.

    B

    Correct: ‘U’ for units is on the Joint Commission Do Not Use list because it can be misread as 0 or 4, causing 10-fold insulin overdoses.

    C

    The heparin order writes out ‘units’ and spells the route, so nothing here is prohibited.

    D

    A leading zero before a decimal is required safe practice; only a trailing zero or a missing leading zero is banned.

12. Case 12

    A clinical practice guideline issues a conditional (weak) recommendation, based on low-certainty evidence, for a therapy in a patient population the pharmacist manages. How should the pharmacist apply this recommendation in practice?

    1. AOption A: Apply it to all eligible patients as a standard order set
    2. BOption B: Withhold the therapy until higher-certainty evidence is published
    3. COption C: Use shared decision-making based on each patient’s values
    4. DOption D: Use it as a performance measure to audit prescriber adherence

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: C.

    Under GRADE, a conditional recommendation means that most informed patients would choose the action but many would not, so the choice should be individualized through shared decision-making. Standard order sets and quality performance measures fit strong recommendations, where nearly everyone would choose the same option. Withholding therapy altogether ignores that the guideline panel judged its benefits likely to outweigh its harms.

    A

    Standard order sets fit strong recommendations, where nearly every informed patient would choose the same option.

    B

    Withholding therapy ignores the panel’s judgment that benefits probably outweigh harms.

    C

    Correct: a conditional recommendation means many informed patients would choose differently, so the decision is individualized through shared decision-making.

    D

    Auditing adherence to a weak recommendation penalizes prescribers for legitimate, patient-centered variation.

13. Case 13

    A hospital wants to buy ready-to-administer phenylephrine syringes compounded in bulk for operating room stock, without patient-specific prescriptions. From which type of supplier may it legally obtain these products?

    1. AOption A: An FDA-registered 503B outsourcing facility
    2. BOption B: Any PCAB-accredited compounding pharmacy
    3. COption C: A state-licensed 503A compounding pharmacy
    4. DOption D: A 503A pharmacy that receives a patient list later

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: A.

    Under the Drug Quality and Security Act, only 503B outsourcing facilities, which are registered with FDA and follow current good manufacturing practice, may compound without patient-specific prescriptions for office or hospital stock. 503A pharmacies must compound for identified individual patients, so bulk stock (even with a patient list supplied afterward) is not allowed. PCAB accreditation is a voluntary quality credential and does not create 503B authority.

    A

    Correct: under the Drug Quality and Security Act, only FDA-registered 503B outsourcing facilities following CGMP may supply compounded stock without prescriptions.

    B

    PCAB accreditation is a voluntary quality credential and does not grant 503B authority.

    C

    503A pharmacies may compound only for identified individual patients, not bulk hospital stock.

    D

    Supplying a patient list after the fact does not turn bulk stock into patient-specific compounding.

14. Case 14

    On a medical unit with an insulin pen shortage, a nurse proposes using one insulin lispro pen for two patients, attaching a new needle for each injection. Which response by the pharmacist is most appropriate?

    1. AOption A: Allow it because a new needle is used each time
    2. BOption B: Allow it if each pen stays on the unit for one shift only
    3. COption C: Allow it if the pen is wiped with alcohol between patients
    4. DOption D: Dispense a separate pen labeled for each patient

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: D.

    Insulin pens must never be shared between patients, even with a new needle, because blood can flow back into the cartridge and transmit bloodborne pathogens; the CDC and FDA warn against the practice. Changing needles or wiping the pen does not decontaminate the cartridge, which is why those options are tempting but wrong. Limiting use to a shift does not change the risk, so each patient needs a labeled pen.

    A

    A new needle does not help: blood can flow back into the cartridge and transmit bloodborne pathogens.

    B

    Limiting the pen to one shift does nothing about backflow contamination between patients.

    C

    Wiping the outside with alcohol cannot decontaminate the insulin inside the cartridge.

    D

    Correct: insulin pens are single-patient devices, and CDC and FDA warn against sharing them even with a fresh needle.

15. Case 15

    A hospital pharmacy is updating its emergency operations plan and must decide which threats (hurricane, ransomware attack on the EHR, chemical spill, pandemic) to prioritize when planning drug stockpiles and downtime procedures. Which tool is designed for this purpose?

    1. AOption A: SWOT analysis
    2. BOption B: Hazard vulnerability analysis
    3. COption C: Root cause analysis
    4. DOption D: Failure mode and effects analysis

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: B.

    A hazard vulnerability analysis rates each potential hazard by probability, impact, and organizational preparedness, and The Joint Commission requires it as the foundation of a hospital’s emergency management plan. FMEA is tempting because it is also prospective, but it analyzes failure modes within a single process rather than ranking external hazards. Root cause analysis looks back at an event that has already happened, and SWOT supports strategic business planning.

    A

    SWOT supports strategic business planning, not ranking hazards for emergency preparedness.

    B

    Correct: a hazard vulnerability analysis rates each threat by probability, impact and preparedness, and The Joint Commission requires it for emergency planning.

    C

    Root cause analysis looks back at an event that already happened.

    D

    FMEA is prospective too, but it dissects failure modes within one process rather than ranking external threats.

16. Case 16

    A medical ICU has a high rate of preventable adverse drug events that originate at the ordering stage. Which pharmacist intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing these events?

    1. AOption A: Monthly adverse-drug-event education sessions for residents
    2. BOption B: Order verification by pharmacists in the central pharmacy
    3. COption C: Pharmacist participation in daily rounds with the ICU team
    4. DOption D: Weekly retrospective chart audits by a clinical pharmacist

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: C.

    A pharmacist on ICU rounds intercepts problems as orders are made; in Leape’s landmark study, preventable ordering ADEs fell by about two-thirds. Central order verification already exists in most hospitals and catches errors only after the order is written, without real-time input into the plan. Retrospective audits find events after they happen, and periodic education has short-lived effects.

    A

    Periodic education has short-lived effects on ordering errors.

    B

    Central verification already exists in most hospitals and catches errors only after the order is written.

    C

    Correct: a pharmacist on ICU rounds shapes orders as they are made; in Leape’s landmark study, preventable ordering ADEs fell by about two-thirds.

    D

    Retrospective audits find events after they have happened rather than preventing them.

17. Case 17

    A pharmacist calls the on-call physician about a hospitalized patient on spironolactone and lisinopril whose potassium is 6.4 mEq/L, and needs to report the problem concisely and recommend a specific action. Which communication tool is designed for this purpose?

    1. AOption A: I-PASS
    2. BOption B: SBAR
    3. COption C: CUS
    4. DOption D: SOAP

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: B.

    SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) structures an urgent clinician-to-clinician call so that the problem and a specific recommendation are stated clearly. I-PASS is a handoff tool for transferring responsibility at shift change, and SOAP is a documentation format. CUS (‘I am Concerned, Uncomfortable, this is a Safety issue’) is an escalation script for when a concern is not being heard, not the first-line structure for reporting.

    A

    I-PASS structures handoffs at shift change, not an urgent call that ends in a recommendation.

    B

    Correct: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) frames an urgent clinician call and ends with a specific request.

    C

    CUS is an escalation script for when a concern is not being heard, not the first-line reporting structure.

    D

    SOAP is a documentation format for notes, not a verbal communication tool.

18. Case 18

    A parent picks up amoxicillin suspension 400 mg/5 mL for a 2-year-old with acute otitis media; the dose is 6 mL twice daily. Which counseling practice best prevents a dosing error at home?

    1. AOption A: Advise using a household teaspoon, since 1 teaspoon is about 5 mL
    2. BOption B: Provide an oral syringe marked in mL and demonstrate the dose
    3. COption C: Label the dose as 1.2 teaspoons so it matches home measures
    4. DOption D: Provide a dosing cup marked in both mL and teaspoons

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: B.

    ISMP and the AAP recommend milliliter-only labeling and an oral syringe sized for the dose, with a demonstration (ideally teach-back), because syringes measure small volumes most accurately. Dosing cups are the tempting choice, but they cause frequent overdosing with small volumes, especially when they show two units. Household spoons vary widely in volume, and teaspoon-based labels invite mL/tsp confusion.

    A

    Household teaspoons vary widely in volume, so ‘about 5 mL’ becomes a guess.

    B

    Correct: ISMP and the AAP favor mL-only dosing with an oral syringe sized for the dose and a demonstration, ideally with teach-back.

    C

    Teaspoon labeling invites mL/tsp mix-ups, and 1.2 teaspoons is impossible to measure at home.

    D

    Dosing cups cause frequent errors with small volumes, especially when marked in two units.

19. Case 19

    A hospital is implementing barcode medication administration (BCMA) without integrating it with its infusion pumps. Which type of error is BCMA most able to intercept?

    1. AOption A: A dose given to the wrong patient at the bedside
    2. BOption B: A drug ordered for a patient with a documented allergy
    3. COption C: A wrong infusion rate programmed into the IV pump
    4. DOption D: A wrong dose originally ordered by the prescriber

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: A.

    BCMA scans the patient’s wristband and the product at the bedside and checks them against the active order, so it reliably catches wrong-patient, wrong-drug, and wrong-dose administration errors at the last step. It cannot detect a prescribing error, because the scan simply matches an order that is itself wrong; allergy checking belongs to CPOE and pharmacist verification. Without pump interoperability, BCMA cannot verify the rate a nurse programs into the pump.

    A

    Correct: BCMA scans the wristband and product at the bedside against the active order, so it reliably intercepts wrong-patient administration.

    B

    Allergy screening of an order belongs to CPOE and pharmacist verification, upstream of the bedside scan.

    C

    Without pump integration, BCMA cannot verify the rate a nurse programs into the pump.

    D

    BCMA matches the product to the order, so a dose that was wrong when prescribed scans as correct.

20. Case 20

    In an IV room, technicians spend several minutes per batch searching for syringes, needles, and labels in cluttered bins, and expired supplies are regularly found mixed with current stock. Which Lean tool most directly addresses this problem?

    1. AOption A: Failure mode and effects analysis
    2. BOption B: Six Sigma DMAIC project
    3. COption C: 5S workplace organization
    4. DOption D: Root cause analysis

    Pick an option: the verdict and a note on every option open here.

    Best answer: C.

    5S (Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain) is the Lean tool for organizing a workspace so that supplies are easy to find and expired items are removed, eliminating the waste of searching (motion). FMEA prospectively analyzes how a process could fail, and root cause analysis investigates a specific adverse event. A full Six Sigma DMAIC project targets process variation and is far more than this housekeeping problem needs.

    A

    FMEA prospectively analyzes how a process could fail, not how supplies are stored.

    B

    A full DMAIC project targets process variation and is far more than this housekeeping problem needs.

    C

    Correct: 5S (Sort, Set in order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain) organizes the workspace, removing search time and expired stock.

    D

    Root cause analysis investigates a specific adverse event rather than everyday workplace clutter.